No explanation required for the question I guess.
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$\begingroup$Yes. A finite sequence is convergent.
Call your sequence $\{a_k\}$. It is finite, so it has a last term, say $a_m=M$.
An sequence converges to a limit $L$ if for any $\epsilon>0$, there exists some integer $N$ such that if $k\ge N$, $|a_k-L|<\epsilon$. However, since your sequence is finite, for any $\epsilon>0$ we just take $N=m$, and it is clearly true that if $k\ge m$, $|a_k-L|=|a_m-L|=0<\epsilon$, since the only possible value for $k$ is $M$ itself.
I hope that was not too confusing.
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